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> more likely to die to your own gun than you are to protect yourself from some bad guys.

You need to be careful when applying statistical trends to specific individuals.

For example, if we suppose hypothetically that impoverished people are more likely to commit robberies, it would be inappropriate to tell a particular impoverished person that they are more likely to commit robberies. Who knows, it could be that they are impoverished because they are a monk who has taken a vow of poverty (and therefore has essentials, such as food and housing, provided to them).

In this particular case, while it may be true that gun owners are statistically more likely to be killed by their own gun than by a criminal with a gun, it does not follow that this particular gun owner is more likely to be killed by their own gun. It is possible that most gun owners are dangerously unfamiliar with their guns and basic safety procedures while this particular gun owner is not.



Why is this the case: "it does not follow that this particular gun owner is more likely"?

Doesn't this follow from assignment to the set?




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