No, I meant inclusive :-). Why must "incorruptible" include "inflexible", and vice versa? Though in hindsight, you're not saying that inflexible implies incorruptible (A <-> B), only that incorruptible implies inflexible (A -> B). Why must that be the case?
I'll simply have to disagree that involving human judgment in every step of a process is a good thing, or that the adversarial legal system does anything other than favor the party with more resources (instead of the party that is more correct). Human beings are simply far too fallible, far too vulnerable to blind spots and biases to be trusted with important decisions. I read once on HN that removing human judgment from part of the judicial process, by implementing sentencing guidelines in criminal cases, actually improved outcomes.
I'll simply have to disagree that involving human judgment in every step of a process is a good thing, or that the adversarial legal system does anything other than favor the party with more resources (instead of the party that is more correct). Human beings are simply far too fallible, far too vulnerable to blind spots and biases to be trusted with important decisions. I read once on HN that removing human judgment from part of the judicial process, by implementing sentencing guidelines in criminal cases, actually improved outcomes.